Practice neco government 2022 Past Questions | Edcrib

Question 1 View Details

According to the historical record, the Freedom of Speech clause was first introduced in a constitution that required a two‑thirds majority in the National Assembly and a national referendum for any amendment. \(12\) years later, the clause was amended in a constitution that required only a simple majority in both the Senate and the House of Representatives. The only constitutions that match these amendment‑procedure criteria are the 1963 Constitution (first condition) and the 1999 Constitution (second condition). In which calendar year was the amendment enacted?

Correct A. 1999

B. 1963

C. 1984

D. 2005

Correct Answer: A

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Question 2 View Details

During a given year, the Supreme Court is allocated one‑third of the total judicial caseload, i.e., \(\\frac{1}{3}\) of all cases, while the Court of Appeal handles the remaining two‑thirds, i.e., \(\\frac{2}{3}\). The Supreme Court currently has 5 justices, each capable of handling a maximum of 30 cases per year. The Court of Appeal has 12 justices, each capable of handling up to 40 cases per year. If the total number of cases to be heard by both courts that year is 720, how many additional justices must be appointed to the Supreme Court to ensure all its cases can be dealt with within the year?

Correct A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 2

Correct Answer: A

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Question 3 View Details

An act passed on 1 January 2020 imposed a \(5\\%\) levy on all commercial transactions. An amendment enacted on 1 March 2021 introduced a provision that the levy would be suspended for any transaction occurring on a public holiday. The government declared a public holiday on 15 August 2021. Subsequently, a repeal act was passed on 1 December 2021 stating that the levy will be completely removed, but the repeal becomes effective only after a \(90\\)-day notice period. Determine the last calendar date on which the levy could legally be applied to a commercial transaction.

Correct A. 28 February 2022

B. 1 March 2022

C. 31 March 2022

D. 15 August 2021

Correct Answer: A

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Question 4 View Details

Five political parties contested the National Assembly election, which uses party‑list proportional representation with a \(5\\%\) electoral threshold and the largest‑remainder method (Hare quota) to allocate 120 seats. The total valid votes cast were 2 500 000, distributed as follows: Party A - 1 200 000 votes, Party B - 800 000 votes, Party C - 300 000 votes, Party D - 150 000 votes, Party E - 50 000 votes. Determine how many seats each party receives.

A. Party A - 59 seats; Party B - 39 seats; Party C - 15 seats; Party D - 7 seats

Correct B. Party A - 58 seats; Party B - 39 seats; Party C - 15 seats; Party D - 8 seats

C. Party A - 58 seats; Party B - 40 seats; Party C - 14 seats; Party D - 8 seats

D. Party A - 57 seats; Party B - 39 seats; Party C - 16 seats; Party D - 8 seats

Correct Answer: B

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Question 5 View Details

The Constitution contains three relevant articles: Article 15 confers legislative power, Article 22 confers executive power, and Article 30 confers judicial power. According to the principle of separation of powers, any conflict between the executive and legislative branches is ultimately resolved by the branch associated with the article bearing the highest numeric designation. If a dispute arises over the legality of an executive order, which branch of government has the final authority to determine its legality, and which article provides this authority?

A. Executive (Article 22)

B. Judiciary (Article 22)

C. Legislature (Article 15)

Correct D. Judiciary (Article 30)

Correct Answer: D

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Question 6 View Details

The Supreme Court has 4 senior judges and 5 junior judges (total 9 judges). A panel of 5 judges is chosen at random to hear a case. For the panel to be valid, at least 3 of the 5 must be senior judges. How many different panels satisfy this condition, and what is the probability that a randomly selected panel is valid? Express the probability as a reduced fraction.

A. 35; 5\/18

B. 50; 5\/12

C. 40; 2\/7

Correct D. 45; 5/14

Correct Answer: D

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Question 7 View Details

In a UN General Assembly session, 180 member states are present and vote on a climate resolution. To be adopted, the resolution requires (i) at least two‑thirds of the votes cast to be in favour, and (ii) at least 60 % of the votes in favour must come from the African Group. The African Group has 80 members present, and historically 90 % of the African members present vote in favour. What is the minimum number of non‑African members that must vote in favour for the resolution to be adopted?

Correct A. 48

B. 54

C. 60

D. 42

Correct Answer: A

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Question 8 View Details

In the International Monetary Fund each member receives 250 basic votes plus one additional vote for every 100 SDR of its quota. Country X has a quota of 5 000 SDR. The total number of votes in the IMF is 2 500 000. (a) What percentage of the total voting power does Country X hold (expressed to three decimal places)? (b) If a decision requires 85 % of the total votes, how many additional votes must Country X acquire by increasing its quota, and what additional quota in SDR does this correspond to? Assume the same conversion rate of 1 vote per 100 SDR.

A. 0.011%; 2 124 700 votes; 212 470 000 SDR

Correct B. 0.012%; 2 124 700 votes; 212 470 000 SDR

C. 0.012%; 2 124 700 votes; 212 400 000 SDR

D. 0.012%; 2 124 600 votes; 212 470 000 SDR

Correct Answer: B

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Question 9 View Details

Nigeria's constitutions were adopted in 1963, 1979 and 1999. The clause on "Fundamental Human Rights" was first introduced N years after the 1963 constitution and later expanded M years after the 1979 constitution, where N = 16 and M = 20. Identify the year in which the clause was first introduced and the constitution it belongs to, and the year in which it was expanded and the constitution it belongs to.

A. First introduced in 1979 (1963 constitution); expanded in 1999 (1999 constitution)

B. First introduced in 1995 (1979 constitution); expanded in 1999 (1999 constitution)

C. First introduced in 1979 (1979 constitution); expanded in 1979 (1979 constitution)

Correct D. First introduced in 1979 (1979 constitution); expanded in 1999 (1999 constitution)

Correct Answer: D

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Question 10 View Details

The National Assembly consists of a Senate with 109 members and a House of Representatives with 360 members. To amend the Constitution a bill must be passed by at least two‑thirds of the members present and voting in each house. In a particular session 95 senators and 340 representatives are present. What is the minimum number of affirmative votes required in the Senate and in the House of Representatives for the amendment to pass?

A. Senate 63 votes; House 227 votes

B. Senate 64 votes; House 226 votes

Correct C. Senate 64 votes; House 227 votes

D. Senate 73 votes; House 240 votes

Correct Answer: C

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Question 11 View Details

Two pressure groups, A and B, are evaluated using the influence index \(I = M \times \sqrt{F}\), where \(M\) is the membership in thousands and \(F\) is the annual funding in millions of naira. Group A has 150,000 members and a funding of \(\text{₦}12\) million. Group B has 80,000 members and a funding of \(\text{₦}20\) million. Which group has the higher influence index?

A. Both groups have equal influence

B. Group A and Group B

C. Group B

Correct D. Group A

Correct Answer: D

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Question 12 View Details

In a country, voter turnout percentages in three consecutive general elections were 62%, 58% and 71% respectively. A political analyst defines a "robust democracy" as having an average voter turnout of at least 65%. Does the country meet this criterion based on the given data?

Correct A. No

B. Yes

C. Cannot determine

D. Maybe

Correct Answer: A

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Question 13 View Details

A local council receives a total annual budget of \(\text{₦}200\) million, sourced as follows: 40% from property tax, 35% from a federal allocation, and 25% from market fees. The council must fund three projects with the following minimum requirements:\n- Road repair: at least \(\text{₦}50\) million.\n- Health clinic: at least 30% of the total budget.\n- Education programme: at least \(\text{₦}40\) million but cannot exceed 25% of the property‑tax revenue.\nIs it possible to meet all three minimum requirements simultaneously? If not, explain why.

A. Possible

B. Feasible

C. Yes, it can be done

Correct D. Not feasible

Correct Answer: D

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Question 14 View Details

A country can adopt one of three foreign‑policy options toward a neighbouring state: (1) Economic sanctions, (2) Military aid, or (3) Mediation. Each option is evaluated on three criteria, scored out of 10: respect for sovereignty, promotion of trade, and cost (negative points). The raw scores are: \n- Sanctions: sovereignty 8, trade 6, cost -4.\n- Military aid: sovereignty 4, trade 5, cost -8.\n- Mediation: sovereignty 9, trade 7, cost -3.\nThe analyst assigns weights of 0.5 to sovereignty, 0.3 to trade and 0.2 to cost. Using a weighted sum (weight × score) for each criterion, which option yields the highest overall utility?

A. Diplomacy

B. Sanctions

C. Military aid

Correct D. Mediation

Correct Answer: D

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Question 15 View Details

Briefly explain two ways in which compulsory voting can enhance political participation in a democracy.

Correct A. It raises voter turnout and encourages citizens to become more informed about political issues.

B. It lowers voter turnout and leads citizens to rely on party propaganda rather than personal research.

C. It ensures that only the most affluent citizens participate, marginalizing lower‑income groups.

D. It removes the need for political campaigns, as voting becomes a mere formality.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 16 View Details

A law passed by the National Assembly imposes a tax on all citizens but does not provide any mechanism for its collection. Which article of the 1999 Nigerian Constitution is most directly breached?

A. Section 44(1)

B. Section 31(1)

Correct C. Section 22(1)

D. Section 15(1)

Correct Answer: C

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Question 17 View Details

The Constitution requires that at least \(30\%\) of the seats in the National Assembly be occupied by women. The Assembly has \(360\) seats and currently \(95\) seats are held by women. (i) How many additional seats must be occupied by women to meet the constitutional minimum? (ii) Assuming the number of women remains \(95\), what is the smallest total number of seats the Assembly can have while still satisfying the \(30\%\) requirement?

A. 20

B. 14

C. 13

Correct D. 19

Correct Answer: D

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Question 18 View Details

A private‑member bill is introduced on 5 January. The first reading is scheduled 5 days later. After the first reading the bill is referred to a committee for a 14‑day scrutiny period. The committee reports on 24 January and the second reading is held on 25 January. A three‑day debate follows (26, 27 and 28 January) and the third reading takes place on 29 January. (i) How many days elapsed from the introduction of the bill to its third reading? (ii) How many sitting days were actually used for the whole process, assuming the Assembly sits only on weekdays and all dates given are weekdays?

A. (i) 23 days, (ii) 20 sitting days

B. (i) 24 days, (ii) 19 sitting days

Correct C. (i) 24 days, (ii) 20 sitting days

D. (i) 25 days, (ii) 21 sitting days

Correct Answer: C

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Question 19 View Details

The federal government's total revenue for the year is \(\text{₦}5\) trillion. By constitutional provision, \(10\%\) of this amount is allocated to local governments, i.e. \(\text{₦}0.5\) trillion. The allocation formula is 60\% based on population and 40\% based on land area. State A accounts for 5\% of the nation's population and 3\% of its land area. Its population is 2 million people.\n\n(i) What is State A's total allocation under the current formula?\n(ii) What is the per‑capita amount for State A?\n(iii) If the weighting is changed to 70\% population and 30\% land area, what would be State A's new allocation?

A. \(\text{₦}20\) billion

B. \(\text{₦}24\) billion

Correct C. \(\text{₦}22\) billion

D. \(\text{₦}18\) billion

Correct Answer: C

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Question 20 View Details

A bill passed the National Assembly with \(210\) votes in favour and \(150\) against. The President vetoes the bill. To override the veto, at least two‑thirds of the total membership (i.e., \(240\) votes) are required. (i) How many additional members must change their vote from ‘against' to ‘for' to achieve the override? (ii) If 20 members were absent during the first vote and all original ‘for' members remain ‘for', what is the minimum number of those absent members that must vote ‘for' in a second vote to reach the required two‑thirds?

Correct A. 30 additional votes; at least 20 absent members must vote ‘for' and 10 of the original ‘against' members must switch

B. 35 additional votes; at least 20 absent members must vote ‘for' and 15 of the original ‘against' members must switch

C. 30 additional votes; at least 25 absent members must vote ‘for' and 5 of the original ‘against' members must switch

D. 25 additional votes; at least 15 absent members must vote ‘for' and 12 of the original ‘against' members must switch

Correct Answer: A

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Question 21 View Details

A university student is expelled for peacefully protesting a tuition increase. Under which article of the 1999 Nigerian Constitution does the student have the right to peaceful assembly and association?

A. Article 42

Correct B. Article 40

C. Article 39

D. Article 41

Correct Answer: B

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Question 22 View Details

A bill is introduced in the Senate. To become law it must be passed by at least \( \frac{2}{3} \) of the members present, and then approved by the House of Representatives with a simple majority. If the Senate has 109 members and 95 are present, what is the minimum number of votes required in the Senate? If the House has 360 members and 300 are present, what is the minimum number of votes required there?

Correct A. Senate: 64 votes; House: 151 votes

B. Senate: 63 votes; House: 151 votes

C. Senate: 73 votes; House: 151 votes

D. Senate: 64 votes; House: 150 votes

Correct Answer: A

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Question 23 View Details

The President issues an executive order that conflicts with a law passed by the National Assembly. Which branch of government has the authority to declare the order unconstitutional, and under which constitutional principle does this power arise?

A. The Legislative, under the principle of parliamentary supremacy (separation of powers)

Correct B. The Judiciary, under the principle of judicial review (separation of powers)

C. The Judiciary, under the principle of checks and balances (separation of powers)

D. The Executive, under the principle of executive privilege (separation of powers)

Correct Answer: B

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Question 24 View Details

In a constituency using the first‑past‑the‑post system, three candidates receive 45\%, 35\% and 20\% of the votes respectively. Who is declared the winner? If the same constituency used a two‑round system where a candidate must obtain more than 50\% to win in the first round, and a second round is held between the top two candidates, which candidate would win after the second round assuming all voters for the eliminated candidate vote for the second‑place candidate?

Correct A. First‑past‑the‑post winner: Candidate A (45%). Two‑round winner: Candidate B (55%).

B. First‑past‑the‑post winner: Candidate B (35%). Two‑round winner: Candidate B (55%).

C. First‑past‑the‑post winner: Candidate A (45%). Two‑round winner: Candidate C (55%).

D. First‑past‑the‑post winner: Candidate A (45%). Two‑round winner: Candidate A (55%).

Correct Answer: A

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Question 25 View Details

In a national election, four parties obtain the following vote shares: Party P = 40\%, Party Q = 30\%, Party R = 20\%, Party S = 10\%. Using the Laakso‑Taagepera index \( ENP = \frac{1}{\sum p_i^{2}} \), where \( p_i \) are the vote shares expressed as fractions, calculate the effective number of parties (ENP) to two decimal places.

A. 3.00

B. 3.20

C. 2.50

Correct D. 3.33

Correct Answer: D

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