Practice gce model questions vol1 government 2025 Past Questions

Question 1 View Details

Explain how the principle of separation of powers helps to prevent abuse of power in a democratic government.

A. By concentrating law‑making, law‑enforcing and law‑interpreting functions in a single body, the system ensures efficient decision‑making, reducing the risk of abuse.

B. By allowing each branch to veto the others' decisions, the system prevents any legislation from being passed, thus avoiding abuse.

Correct C. By allocating law‑making, law‑enforcing and law‑interpreting functions to separate bodies, the system creates mutual checks that stop any one branch from concentrating power, thereby limiting abuse and protecting liberty.

D. By rotating the powers of law‑making, law‑enforcing and law‑interpreting among the branches each year, the system keeps power fluid and prevents long‑term abuse.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 2 View Details

In a town of 5,000 voters, three parties contest a single‑member election. The votes are: Party A - 2,200 votes, Party B - 1,800 votes, Party C - 1,000 votes.\n\n(a) Which party wins under the first‑past‑the‑post system?\n(b) If the town switches to a proportional‑representation system that allocates 10 seats, rounding each party's share to the nearest whole seat, how many seats does each party obtain?\n(c) State one advantage and one disadvantage of moving from first‑past‑the‑post to proportional representation.

A. (a) Party C wins. (b) Seats - Party A: 4, Party B: 3, Party C: 3. (c) Advantage - guarantees proportionality; Disadvantage - leads to frequent elections.

B. (a) Party B wins. (b) Seats - Party A: 5, Party B: 3, Party C: 2. (c) Advantage - encourages two‑party dominance; Disadvantage - marginalizes smaller parties.

C. (a) Party A wins. (b) Seats - Party A: 3, Party B: 5, Party C: 2. (c) Advantage - simplifies government formation; Disadvantage - reduces voter choice.

Correct D. (a) Party A wins. (b) Seats - Party A: 4, Party B: 4, Party C: 2. (c) Advantage - better representation of voter diversity; Disadvantage - possible coalition instability.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 3 View Details

A new law imposes a 5% tax on all incomes above \(\text{₦}2{,}000{,}000\). The constitution guarantees equality before the law. A group of citizens argues that the tax is discriminatory. Using the principle of the rule of law, outline the legal arguments they could make and the likely outcome if the case reaches the courts.

A. The citizens would assert the tax breaches the equality clause, yet the court would deem the distinction reasonable and sustain the tax.

Correct B. The citizens would claim the tax breaches the constitutional guarantee of equality because it discriminates against high‑income earners without sufficient justification. Under the rule of law, the court would examine whether the distinction is reasonable; most likely it would deem the tax unconstitutional and invalidate it.

C. The citizens would argue the tax is permissible because it targets only excess income, and the court would likely uphold the tax as a valid exercise of fiscal policy.

D. The citizens would claim the tax violates the principle of legal certainty, but the court would find that the tax is a reasonable distinction and therefore constitutional.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 4 View Details

Nigeria has adopted four major constitutions since independence: 1960 (Independence Constitution), 1963 (Republic Constitution), 1979 (Second Republic), and 1999 (Fourth Republic).\n\n(a) Calculate the intervals in years between each successive constitution.\n(b) Find the average interval.\n(c) Assuming the same average interval continues, predict the year in which the next major constitutional amendment would be expected.\n(d) Briefly discuss two limitations of using this method for prediction.

A. (a) 3 years, 15 years, 21 years. (b) Average = 13 years. (c) Predicted next amendment around 2013. (d) Limitations: assumes linear progression and ignores constitutional crises.

Correct B. (a) 3 years, 16 years, 20 years. (b) Average = 13 years. (c) Predicted next amendment around 2012. (d) Limitations: political circumstances vary and the data set is too small for a robust forecast.

C. (a) 4 years, 16 years, 20 years. (b) Average = 13.3 years. (c) Predicted next amendment around 2013. (d) Limitations: small sample size and changing political regimes.

D. (a) 3 years, 16 years, 20 years. (b) Average = 12 years. (c) Predicted next amendment around 2011. (d) Limitations: ignores economic factors and external influences.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 5 View Details

In 2015, the reported number of crimes in a state was \(12{,}000\). After a series of legal reforms, the number fell to \(9{,}600\) in 2020.\n\n(a) Calculate the percentage decrease in crime over this period.\n(b) Explain what this change suggests about the effectiveness of the rule of law in that state.

Correct A. (a) 20 % decrease. (b) The reduction implies that the legal reforms strengthened the rule of law, leading to lower crime rates and greater public trust in the justice system.

B. (a) 30 % decrease. (b) The drop implies that the legal reforms dramatically improved the rule of law, but the magnitude is overstated compared to the actual data.

C. (a) 25 % decrease. (b) The reduction suggests that the legal reforms had limited effect on the rule of law, and other factors may have contributed to the lower crime rates.

D. (a) 15 % decrease. (b) This change indicates that the legal reforms weakened the rule of law, causing a modest decline in crime that may not reflect true improvement.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 6 View Details

Country A imposes economic sanctions that cut Country B's exports to A by \(30\%\). For each \(1\%\) reduction in exports, Country B's annual GDP growth rate falls by \(0.02\) percentage points. Simultaneously, Country A provides military aid equal to \(2\%\) of Country B's GDP. Each \(1\%\) of aid raises Country B's security index by \(0.2\), and each \(0.1\) increase in the security index raises GDP growth by \(0.05\) percentage points. Assuming no other changes, what is the net change (in percentage points) in Country B's annual GDP growth rate due to the combined sanctions and aid?

Correct A. -0.4

B. 0.0

C. -0.6

D. -0.2

Correct Answer: A

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Question 7 View Details

Nigeria experienced major constitutional events in the years \(1960\), \(1963\), \(1979\), \(1999\) and \(2015\). If the next constitutional reform is scheduled to occur after a period equal to the median of the intervals between all previous reforms, in which year will the next reform take place?

Correct A. 2031

B. 2035

C. 2032

D. 2029

Correct Answer: A

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Question 8 View Details

In Country A, which uses first‑past‑the‑post (FPTP) for its 120 constituencies, a particular party receives \(55\%\) of the votes in some constituencies and \(35\%\) in the others. Its overall national vote share is \(45\%\). Assuming the party wins every constituency where it obtains \(55\%\) of the votes, how many seats does it win, what percentage of the total seats is this, and by how many percentage points does this exceed its national vote share?

Correct A. 5

B. 8

C. 4

D. 6

Correct Answer: A

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Question 9 View Details

A pressure group has 200 000 members each paying an annual due of £10 and receives corporate donations totalling £500 000. It allocates 40 % of its total annual funds to lobbying. For every £100 000 spent on lobbying it achieves a success rate of 12 %. How many successful lobbying outcomes can it expect in a year?

Correct A. 1.2

B. 1.5

C. 2.0

D. 0.8

Correct Answer: A

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Question 10 View Details

Country X can influence Country Y's alignment index (scale 0-100) which is currently 40. It may (a) grant a trade concession worth \(t\)% of Y's GDP, raising the index by \(0.8t\) points, at a domestic political cost of \(3t\) points, or (b) provide military training costing \(m\)% of Y's GDP, raising the index by \(1.5m\) points, at a domestic cost of \(5m\) points. The total domestic cost may not exceed 12 points. What is the maximum possible increase in Y's alignment index that X can achieve within the cost limit?

A. 2.4

Correct B. 3.6

C. 3.0

D. 4.2

Correct Answer: B

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Question 11 View Details

A local council evaluates a waste‑management programme using three performance indicators: cost efficiency (score out of 100), environmental impact (score out of 100) and public satisfaction (score out of 100). The weights are 0.4, 0.35 and 0.25 respectively. Because of a 10 % budget cut, the cost‑efficiency score must be reduced by 10 % before weighting. The original scores are: cost = 78, environment = 85, satisfaction = 72. Calculate the final weighted effectiveness score and state whether it meets the minimum acceptable threshold of 70.

A. 78.00

B. 73.45

C. 71.20

Correct D. 75.83

Correct Answer: D

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Question 12 View Details

In a government department there are three grades: Junior Officer (JO), Senior Officer (SO) and Principal Officer (PO). The department currently has 4 JOs, 3 SOs and 2 POs. During a promotion cycle each JO can be promoted to an SO only if the SO they replace is moving up to PO, and each PO must retire, creating a vacancy. How many distinct ways can all vacancies be filled, assuming each promotion involves a different individual and no person can hold two positions at the same time?

A. 168

B. 120

Correct C. 144

D. 96

Correct Answer: C

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Question 13 View Details

A constitutional amendment in a parliament of 910 members (650 in the Commons and 260 in the Lords) requires (a) a two‑thirds majority of the total membership and (b) a simple majority in each House. The governing party controls 380 seats in the Commons and 120 seats in the Lords; the remaining seats are held by independents. Assuming all governing‑party members vote for the amendment, what is the minimum number of independent MPs and Lords that must also support it for the amendment to pass? Give the total number of independents required and the separate numbers needed from the Commons and the Lords.

A. 102 independents (90 Commons, 12 Lords)

B. 108 independents (96 Commons, 12 Lords)

C. 110 independents (95 Commons, 15 Lords)

Correct D. 107 independents (95 Commons, 12 Lords)

Correct Answer: D

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Question 14 View Details

Two pressure groups, A and B, are assessed for influence on a policy using three criteria: public support \(P\) (out of 100), financial resources \(F\) (in million £) and expert credibility \(C\) (out of 50). Their overall influence score is calculated by \(I = 0.5\sqrt{P} + 0.3\log_{10}(F) + 0.2C\). Group A has \(P=64\), \(F=5\) and \(C=40\); Group B has \(P=81\), \(F=2\) and \(C=45\). Which group has the higher influence score and by how much (to two decimal places)?

A. Group B by 2.10

B. Group A by 0.75

Correct C. Group B by 1.38

D. Group B by 0.95

Correct Answer: C

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Question 15 View Details

A local authority has £1,200,000 to allocate among three public projects X, Y and Z. The amount allocated to each project is expressed in £100,000 units \(x, y, z\) (non‑negative integers) with \(x+y+z = 12\). Their effectiveness functions are: \[E_X = 10\sqrt{x},\quad E_Y = 8\ln(y+1),\quad E_Z = 6\sqrt[3]{z}.\] Determine the allocation \((x, y, z)\) that maximises the total effectiveness \(E = E_X + E_Y + E_Z\) and give the maximum total effectiveness value (rounded to two decimal places).

A. x=8, y=2, z=2; total effectiveness 44.85

B. x=9, y=2, z=1; total effectiveness 45.10

Correct C. x=8, y=3, z=1; total effectiveness 45.37

D. x=7, y=4, z=1; total effectiveness 44.12

Correct Answer: C

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Question 16 View Details

If a constitutional amendment requires a two‑thirds majority in both houses and the Senate has 109 members, what is the minimum number of senators that must vote in favour for the amendment to pass, assuming all senators vote?

A. 74

B. 72

Correct C. 73

D. 69

Correct Answer: C

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Question 17 View Details

In a country with a 120‑seat parliament, 80 seats are filled by first‑past‑the‑post constituency elections and the remaining 40 seats are allocated to parties using the largest‑remainder (Hamilton) method based on national vote shares. The parties received the following vote shares and constituency seats: \(\text{Party A}: 42\%\) of the vote, 28 constituency seats; \(\text{Party B}: 33\%\) of the vote, 45 constituency seats; \(\text{Party C}: 25\%\) of the vote, 7 constituency seats. How many total seats will Party C obtain after the list seats are allocated?

A. 20

B. 15

C. 18

Correct D. 17

Correct Answer: D

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Question 18 View Details

A political party seeking registration must satisfy two conditions: (i) it must have at least \(0.5\%\) of the total registered voters as members, and (ii) it must have at least 5,000 members in at least half of the 36 states of the country. If the total number of registered voters is 80 million, what is the minimum total number of members the party must have to meet both conditions?

A. 500000

B. 800000

Correct C. 400000

D. 250000

Correct Answer: C

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Question 19 View Details

A parliament has 12 eligible members for ministerial appointment, of whom 7 belong to the ruling party and 5 to the opposition. A cabinet of 5 ministers must be formed with the condition that at least two ministers come from the ruling party. In how many different ways can the cabinet be chosen?

A. 720

B. 840

C. 630

Correct D. 756

Correct Answer: D

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Question 20 View Details

The legislative branch exercises powers \(\{A,B,C,D,E\}\), the executive branch exercises powers \(\{C,D,F,G\}\) and the judiciary exercises powers \(\{D,E,F,H\}\). How many distinct powers are exercised by exactly two of the three branches?

A. 4

Correct B. 3

C. 5

D. 2

Correct Answer: B

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Question 21 View Details

In a parliament of 200 seats, Party A holds 78 seats, Party B 62 seats, Party C 44 seats and independents hold 16 seats. A coalition must contain at least two parties and may not include both Party A and Party C together. What is the smallest total number of seats a coalition can have while still achieving a majority (at least \(101\) seats) under these rules?

A. 101

B. 108

C. 103

Correct D. 106

Correct Answer: D

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Question 22 View Details

A constituency has \(80{,}000\) registered voters. In the recent election, \(48{,}000\) votes were cast. Of these, \(30{,}000\) were cast by youth (aged 15‑17) and the remaining votes were cast by adults. What was the voter turnout percentage (to the nearest whole percent)?

A. 75

B. 65

Correct C. 60

D. 55

Correct Answer: C

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Question 23 View Details

The Supreme Court consists of 12 judges, of whom 7 belong to the Civil Division and 5 to the Criminal Division. A case is heard by a panel of exactly five judges, with the requirement that at least two judges must be from the Civil Division and at least one from the Criminal Division. How many distinct panels can be formed that satisfy these conditions?

A. 945

Correct B. 735

C. 630

D. 770

Correct Answer: B

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Question 24 View Details

A country allocates 12 parliamentary seats using party‑list proportional representation. The parties received the following votes: Party A \(340{,}000\), Party B \(260{,}000\), Party C \(180{,}000\), Party D \(120{,}000\), Party E \(100{,}000\). Seats are allocated using the D'Hondt method and also using the Sainte‑Laguë method. Which party receives one more seat under the Sainte‑Laguë method than under D'Hondt?

A. Party E

B. Party A

Correct C. Party D

D. Party B

Correct Answer: C

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Question 25 View Details

A bill must pass three successive readings in parliament to become law. The probability of passing the first reading is 0.8. If it passes the first reading, the probability of passing the second reading is 0.75, and if it passes the second, the probability of passing the third reading is 0.9. If the bill fails the first reading, it may be amended; the probability that an amendment is successful is 0.6, after which the bill faces the first reading again with the same probabilities. Assuming only one amendment attempt is allowed, what is the overall probability that the bill eventually becomes law? Give your answer rounded to three decimal places.

A. 0.540

B. 0.665

C. 0.720

Correct D. 0.605

Correct Answer: D

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