gce model questions vol1 2020 government | Objective

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Question 1 View Details
A local council has \(12{,}000\) households. The current council tax per household is \(£1{,}200\), but \(10\%\) of households are exempt and pay nothing. The council's annual expenditure is \(£13.5\) million. The council wishes to eliminate a deficit of \(£1.2\) million and at the same time expects the number of households to rise by \(5\%\) next year. Assuming the tax rate per paying household will be the same for all paying households, what should be the new council tax per household (in whole pounds) for next year?
A. 1287
B. 1275
Correct C. 1297
D. 1302

Correct Answer: C

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Question 2 View Details
In a mixed‑member proportional system a parliament has \(120\) seats, of which \(80\) are constituency seats elected by first‑past‑the‑post and \(40\) are list seats used to achieve overall proportionality. Party Y wins \(35\) constituency seats and receives \(38\%\) of the party‑vote nationwide. Using the highest‑remainder method (rounding down each party's entitlement and then allocating any remaining seats to the parties with the largest remainders), how many list seats does Party Y receive and what is its total number of seats?
A. 9 list seats, total 44 seats
Correct B. 10 list seats, total 45 seats
C. 12 list seats, total 47 seats
D. 11 list seats, total 46 seats

Correct Answer: B

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Question 3 View Details
A pressure‑group has an annual budget of \(£2.5\) million. It allocates its spending as follows: \(40\%\) on public campaigns, \(35\%\) on direct lobbying and \(25\%\) on research. The effectiveness coefficient per \(£1{,}000\) spent is \(0.8\) for campaigns, \(1.2\) for direct lobbying and \(1.0\) for research. (a) What is the group's total effectiveness score for the current budget? (b) The group wants to achieve a total effectiveness of at least \(3{,}000\) while keeping the same spending proportions. What is the minimum additional amount (in whole pounds) that the budget must be increased by?
Correct A. £530,304
B. £540,304
C. £525,000
D. £530,000

Correct Answer: A

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Question 4 View Details
In a constitutional system each branch is composed of a number of organisational units: the Legislature has \(6\) committees, the Executive has \(4\) ministries and the Judiciary has \(3\) courts. A check from branch X to branch Y can be made for every ordered pair consisting of one unit of X and one unit of Y. Moreover, two branches together can check the third branch for every ordered triple formed by one unit of each of the two checking branches and one unit of the checked branch. How many distinct checks and balances exist in total in this system?
A. 312
B. 336
C. 300
Correct D. 324

Correct Answer: D

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Question 5 View Details
In a proportional‑representation election \(120\) seats are allocated using the D'Hondt method with a \(5\%\) electoral threshold. Five parties obtain the following shares of the national vote: Party P 48 %, Party Q 27 %, Party R 15 %, Party S 4 % and Party T 6 %. Parties that do not meet the threshold are excluded from seat allocation. How many seats does Party T receive after the D'Hondt allocation?
A. 8
B. 6
Correct C. 7
D. 9

Correct Answer: C

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Question 6 View Details
Three constitutional amendments (A, B, C) were put to referendum simultaneously. Amendment A required a two‑thirds majority of votes cast, B required a simple majority of votes cast, and C required a simple majority of total registered voters. The turnout was \(68\%\) of \(30\) million registered voters. The percentages voting in favour were: A - \(56\%\), B - \(62\%\), C - \(48\%\) of those who turned out. Determine which of the amendments, if any, were adopted.
A. Only Amendment C is adopted.
B. Only Amendment A is adopted.
C. Amendments A and B are adopted.
Correct D. Only Amendment B is adopted.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 7 View Details
The Constitution contains 20 chapters that are distributed equally among its 5 parts. If Part III deals with fundamental rights, how many chapters are in Part III?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
Correct D. 4

Correct Answer: D

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Question 8 View Details
A developing country is a non‑permanent member of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) and also a member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF). In the UNSC a resolution passes only if it receives at least nine affirmative votes and no vetoes from any of the five permanent members. In the IMF, a decision on quota changes requires a super‑majority of \(85\%\) of the total voting power of members present. The country holds \(0.5\%\) of IMF voting power, and at a particular IMF meeting members present represent \(95\%\) of total voting power. In the UNSC vote, the country votes ‘yes', two permanent members vote ‘no', and the remaining members vote ‘yes'. Determine whether the resolution passes in each organisation.
A. Passes in both the UNSC and the IMF.
Correct B. Fails in the UNSC; passes in the IMF.
C. Passes in the UNSC; fails in the IMF.
D. Fails in both the UNSC and the IMF.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 9 View Details
A local government council uses zero‑based budgeting for a department that proposes three activities: - Activity X: cost \(\text{₦}12,000,000\), expected beneficiaries 3,000.\n- Activity Y: cost \(\text{₦}8,000,000\), expected beneficiaries 2,500.\n- Activity Z: cost \(\text{₦}5,000,000\), expected beneficiaries 1,200.\n The council will fund only those activities whose cost‑per‑beneficiary ratio is lower than the overall average cost‑per‑beneficiary of all three activities combined. Which activities will be funded?
A. Activities X and Z
B. Activity X only
C. Activities X, Y, and Z
Correct D. Activity Y only

Correct Answer: D

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Question 10 View Details
A pressure group currently has 8,000 members. It claims that a new law will increase its membership by 20 % of the original membership in the first year and by a further 15 % of the original membership in the second year. The law also raises the membership fee by 10 %, which is expected to cause a 5 % attrition of the original members each year. Calculate the net membership at the end of the second year.
A. 9,200
B. 9,600
Correct C. 10,000
D. 10,800

Correct Answer: C

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Question 11 View Details
In Country X, the constitution gives the President the power to (i) appoint ministers, (ii) dissolve parliament, (iii) veto legislation, and (iv) declare a state of emergency. The constitution also states that a declaration of emergency must be approved by a two‑thirds majority in parliament within 30 days, otherwise it lapses. The President declares an emergency on 1 March. Parliament meets on 20 March and passes the approval with a simple majority. What is the constitutional status of the emergency on 25 March?
A. The emergency is invalid because only a simple majority was obtained.
B. The emergency lapses on 25 March.
C. The emergency is suspended pending further parliamentary approval.
Correct D. The emergency remains in force on 25 March.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 12 View Details
In Federation Y, removing a federal minister follows three stages: (1) a motion for removal is introduced in the lower house and must be passed by a simple majority; (2) the upper house must then approve the motion by a two‑thirds majority; (3) the Supreme Court must confirm that the minister has breached the constitutional code of conduct before the removal takes effect. The lower house passes the motion with (55%) support, the upper house votes (60%) in favour, and the Supreme Court finds insufficient evidence of a breach. What is the final outcome for the minister?
A. The minister is removed from office.
Correct B. The minister remains in office.
C. The minister is suspended pending further investigation.
D. The minister must stand for a re‑election.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 13 View Details
In the 2015 general election, 12 million people were eligible to vote and the turnout was (68%). In the 2020 election, the electorate increased to 13.5 million and the turnout fell to (64%). By how many voters did the total number of people who actually voted change between the two elections?
Correct A. 480,000 more voters
B. 400,000 more voters
C. 720,000 more voters
D. 560,000 more voters

Correct Answer: A

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Question 14 View Details
A country allocates central‑government grants to local authorities using the formula: \[\text{Grant}=\text{Base}+0.2\times\text{Population}+0.1\times\text{Revenue}\] where the Base is £5 million, Population is expressed in thousands, and Revenue is in £ million. Authority A has a population of 150 000 and generates £12 million in revenue. The government reforms the formula by increasing the revenue weight from 0.1 to 0.15 for all authorities. What is the percentage change in the grant received by Authority A after the reform? Give your answer to two decimal places.
A. 2.00% increase
Correct B. 1.66% increase
C. 1.75% increase
D. 1.50% increase

Correct Answer: B

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Question 15 View Details
Country Z's constitution allows the Supreme Court to strike down any law that is inconsistent with the Bill of Rights. An amendment passed in 2018 introduced a "savings clause" stating that any law enacted before 1 January 2015 shall be exempt from judicial review, even if inconsistent. A law passed in 2014 restricting freedom of assembly is challenged in 2022. What should the Supreme Court decide?
A. The Court should refer the matter to the legislature for amendment.
B. The Court must strike down the law; it is unconstitutional.
C. The Court may exercise discretion and either uphold or strike down the law.
Correct D. The Court must uphold the law; it cannot strike it down.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 16 View Details
Using the D'Hondt method, allocate the 20 seats of a parliament among five parties that received the following numbers of votes: Party A - \(350{,}000\); Party B - \(250{,}000\); Party C - \(200{,}000\); Party D - \(120{,}000\); Party E - \(80{,}000\). Which party receives the 10th seat allocated?
A. Party C
B. Party D
C. Party B
Correct D. Party A

Correct Answer: D

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Question 17 View Details
In a parliament of \(500\) members, an ordinary bill passes with a simple majority. What is the minimum number of votes required to guarantee the bill's passage, assuming every member votes?
A. 252
Correct B. 251
C. 250
D. 300

Correct Answer: B

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Question 18 View Details
A judicial council consists of \(15\) members, of whom \(9\) are senior judges and \(6\) are junior judges. For a decision to be valid, at least two‑thirds of the council must be present, and among those present at least half must be senior judges. What is the smallest number of members that must attend the meeting, and what is the minimum number of senior judges among them?
A. 9 total members, with at least 5 senior judges
Correct B. 10 total members, with at least 5 senior judges
C. 10 total members, with at least 4 senior judges
D. 11 total members, with at least 5 senior judges

Correct Answer: B

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Question 19 View Details
The United Nations Security Council has 5 permanent members and 10 non‑permanent members. For a resolution to pass, at least nine affirmative votes are required and no permanent member may vote against (they may vote yes or abstain). Assume each non‑permanent member either votes yes or no, while each permanent member may vote yes or abstain. How many distinct voting configurations (i.e., distinct sets of members voting yes) can result in the resolution's passage?
A. 9,950
B. 10,049
C. 9,948
Correct D. 9,949

Correct Answer: D

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Question 20 View Details
A pressure group's annual budget is £\(2.5\) million, funded as follows: 40 % from membership fees, 35 % from donations, and the remainder from government grants. The group aims to increase its total budget by 20 % next year. It can raise membership fees by at most 10 % of the current amount and donations by at most 5 % of the current amount. By how much (in £) must the government grant increase to achieve the target budget?
Correct A. £356,250
B. £125,000
C. £400,000
D. £456,250

Correct Answer: A

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Question 21 View Details
The House of Commons has 650 seats. To pass a constitutional amendment, two conditions must be met: (i) at least \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the total membership must vote in favour, and (ii) at least 75\% of the members present must vote in favour. In a particular session 580 MPs are present. What is the minimum number of votes in favour required to satisfy both conditions?
A. 436
Correct B. 435
C. 434
D. 433

Correct Answer: B

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Question 22 View Details
A local authority has a total budget of \(£120\) million. It allocates 40\% to education, 25\% to health, 20\% to transport and the remainder to waste management. A policy change requires the transport budget to increase by 15\% of its original allocation, funded by proportional cuts to education and health (waste management remains unchanged). After the reallocation, what percentage of the total budget is spent on waste management?
Correct A. 15\%
B. 12\%
C. 18\%
D. 20\%

Correct Answer: A

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Question 23 View Details
In a country that uses first‑past‑the‑post (FPTP), Party A receives 42\% of the national vote and wins 260 of the 500 seats in Parliament. Under a hypothetical proportional‑representation (PR) system with a 5\% threshold, seats would be allocated in direct proportion to vote share (ignore rounding). How many seats would Party A obtain under PR, and how many more seats does it have under FPTP compared with PR?
Correct A. 210 seats under PR; 50 more seats under FPTP
B. 200 seats under PR; 60 more seats under FPTP
C. 215 seats under PR; 45 more seats under FPTP
D. 220 seats under PR; 40 more seats under FPTP

Correct Answer: A

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Question 24 View Details
The Supreme Court consists of 12 judges. For a constitutional case, a two‑thirds majority of the judges present is required to set a binding precedent. In a particular hearing, 2 judges recuse themselves and 3 further judges are absent due to illness. How many judges must vote in favour to achieve the required majority?
A. 6
B. 4
Correct C. 5
D. 7

Correct Answer: C

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Question 25 View Details
The executive proposes a regulation that imposes a tax on digital services. The constitution assigns the power to levy taxes to the legislature, but the executive may make secondary legislation under an enabling act that permits regulations "necessary for the efficient administration of public services". The enabling act does not mention taxation. Is the executive's regulation constitutionally valid? Answer Yes or No and give the reason.
A. Yes - the regulation is valid because taxation of digital services falls within the executive's inherent powers to regulate commerce.
B. No - the regulation is invalid because the executive lacks any power to create secondary legislation.
C. Yes - the executive may impose taxes under the enabling act's broad language of "necessary for the efficient administration of public services."
Correct D. No - the regulation exceeds the executive's delegated authority because taxation is a legislative power not authorised by the enabling act.

Correct Answer: D

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